Attitudes towards pedophilia in the biblical context

Many people think sex with children was accepted in the biblical context. This is a common myth held by pastors and other theologians who don't want to look further due to their own issues, and the masses that follow them. The Bible, as a document, is pro-pedophile but neutral pedophilia, as God's Law commands righteous honesty, in one's actions in a way that signals one's pedophilic desires to anyone concerned, and admission of pedophilia once questioned by any concerned parent or adult.

The biblical context itself is anti-contact pro-pedophile in its presentation. "Anti-contact" simply means here that there is a clear difference between sexual fantasy and sexual reality. Sexual fantasy was not banned in either the Old and New Testament, and neither was mere sexual attraction to children. However, all those who were married were legally adults, and usually same age, or else with an older woman being the spouse. A father who married his daughter to an older man was shamed as endangering her.

It says in 1 Corinthians 7:36 KJV:

But if any man think that he behaveth uncomely towards his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, let them marry.

The Greek root word translated "flower of her age" is υπερακμος (Latin: huperakmos) and refers to the age of consent, meaning it existed then, and it was higher under Christian law than in the surrounding Greco-Roman culture, with the average age of marriage in the Early Christian church being 14. The age of consent/marriage was aligned strictly with the age of majority, as should be the case here in the United States, since children are technically under the power of every adult they meet and will be until the end of time, hence conflict of interest. Sex with a child under the age of majority/consent was seen as a very heinous crime, meaning one deserving of death, even as Christ abolished the death penalty.

However, the passage itself says something different from what it appears to. "Man" refers to father, not betrothed bridegroom, meaning if a man has a sexual attraction to his pubescent daughter, then considered a young woman, he was commanded by God to hand her over to a man for marriage immediately, meaning without waiting. This would require identifying as a pedophile, wouldn't it? The word "pedophile" didn't exist then, but the disorder occurred then, and it was seen as an open struggle, not a closeted one, and something that existed in most all Hebrew men then. It was a parenting struggle talked about like struggling parents talk about their anger in the modern day. But, talking about wanting sex with your daughter, and actually doing it, were two very different things.

Pedophilia, with young children, was a trauma "curing" mechanism found in many ancient cultures, including ancient Canaanite society. Ancient Hebrew society banned pedophilia, with it saying in Leviticus 18:17 KJV:

Thou shalt not uncover the nakedness of a woman and her daughter, neither shalt thou take her son's daughter, or her daughter''s daughter, to uncover her nakedness; for they are her near kinswomen: it is wickedness.

In Old Testament passages, the wording of a passage is not as important as how it was applied, as Jewish law was applied flexibly, meaning in any way or every way possible to enforce law and order amongst the masses, usually in a pro-social punishment way that struck fear in the masses in terms of even the thought of doing something wrong. Here, this means do not engage in sexual contact with your daughter at all, as the child victim perceives the incident. This would mean "curing" a trauma was a moral crime, and one punishable by death in ancient Israel, meaning burning at the stake (serefah). This whole context here is repeated in the New Testament by the Greek root word πορνεία (Latin: porneia), which compiles all the sex crime statutes under the Law into one word. The word mentions sexual impurity and immorality in general, but it is implied that it means as understood in the context, and the general rule under the Law is that any sexual activity outside of marriage was considered sexually impure. Parents did not soothe their children with sexual acts in ancient Israel like they did in ancient Canaan and other cultures then, such as the Phoenicians and the Egyptians, treating children better than other ancient cultures.

However, most fathers were pedophiles to their children, most likely. The reason for the wording in Lev. 18:17 is that mothers and daughters were inseparable until adulthood, with young girls snuggling next to their mothers and seldom leaving to play freely within the supervision of parents. This protective setup was to prevent sexual abuse from occurring, meaning the father would literally need to force himself in between the wife and the daughter in order for the abuse to occur. Most fathers likely admired their daughter's nudity next to his nude wife, as mother and child often co-slept and cuddled in the nude. Most pedophilia then was of the connotational variety, meaning morally neutral under biblical law, but good to admit to when it gets you in trouble. The sexual attraction in such Hebrew homes was of a low-level, meaning could easily be controlled by the pedophilic parent.

This context applies today in that there is a huge difference between fantasy and reality, meaning sex with children was likely on the brain with biblical men, but they surely knew it would never happen. Let the depraved adult fornicators who impose adult sexual entitlement onto children be forever tormented in the lake of fire and burning sulfur, which is the second death prepared for Satan and his accomplices! Repent, for the Kingdom of Heaven is at hand!